25. Your patient is an 85 year old male that presents with LLQ pain, fever, and diarrhea. His fever is 101, and the remainder of his vitals are normal. His WBC count is 8.4. The remainder of his lab data including chemistries are normal. His CT scan reveals mild sigmoid diverticulitis without abscess. His pain is controlled with Vicodin you gave him in the ER. Which of the following is the best management option?
A. Discharge the patient home on cipro, flagyl, and vicodin and follow up in 1 week
B. Admit the patient to the hospital for IV antibiotics and observation
C. Refer the patient for a colonoscopy to make sure this inflammatory process is not an occult malignancy.
D. Send the patient for a barium enema
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